Paramedics Practice Test And Answers

Paramedic Practice Test: NREMT Exam Preparation

The Paramedic test, known as the NREMT (National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians) Paramedic exam, assesses the advanced knowledge and skills required for providing high-level emergency medical care. The test covers several categories, each focusing on different aspects of emergency medical services (EMS), including Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation; Cardiology and Resuscitation; Trauma; Medical and Obstetrics/Gynecology; and EMS Operations.

The NREMT Paramedic exam is a computer-adaptive test (CAT), meaning the number of questions varies based on the candidate’s performance, typically including between 80 to 150 questions with a time limit of up to 2.5 hours. The distribution of questions generally falls into the following ranges:

Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation: 18-22%
Cardiology and Resuscitation: 20-24%
Trauma: 14-18%
Medical and Obstetrics/Gynecology: 27-31%
EMS Operations: 10-14%.

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Test Adaptation

Since the test is adaptive, the difficulty and number of questions adjust as the candidate answers each question, aiming to accurately measure the candidate’s competence level by presenting questions that match their ability. The test concludes once it has determined the candidate’s proficiency level with sufficient confidence, resulting in a varying number of questions for each test-taker.

1. You are assisting in pre-oxygenation before intubation for an elderly patient in respiratory failure. Your best approach is to ventilate the patient:

A. At a rate of 10-12 breaths per minute.
B. With as many breaths as the patient can comfortably take.
C. At a rate of 16-20 breaths per minute.
D. At a rate of 20-24 breaths per minute.

2. You arrive at the scene of an emergency where a patient is found unconscious and not breathing. What is your immediate action?

A. Begin CPR immediately
B. Perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment
C. Check the patient's vital signs
D. Call for additional medical assistance

3. A patient exhibits inspiratory stridor after a bee sting to the neck. What is likely occurring?

A. Cardiac arrhythmia.
B. Anaphylactic reaction leading to upper airway swelling.
C. Bronchial constriction.
D. Hyperventilation syndrome.

4. You and your partner arrive on scene to find an elderly woman who has fallen and is lying prone. She is responsive but breathing rapidly and shallowly, with visible signs of distress. What is your first course of action?

A. Stabilize her neck, roll her onto her back, and check airway patency.
B. Immediately start chest compressions.
C. Apply a cervical collar and transport.
D. Assess for spinal injuries without moving her.

5. In a patient with an upper airway obstruction, which sound indicates severe airway compromise?

A. Snoring respirations.
B. Gurgling.
C. High-pitched wheezing on inhalation.
D. Quiet, minimal air movement.

6. You respond to a 65-year-old male with a history of heart failure who is experiencing increased dyspnea and orthopnea. What is the most appropriate initial action?

A. Administer high-flow oxygen and place the patient in a seated position.
B. Immediately begin CPAP.
C. Start an IV and prepare to administer diuretics.
D. Perform a 12-lead ECG and monitor vital signs.

7. You find a patient with signs of a possible transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which time frame is typically observed for symptoms to resolve in a TIA?

A. 10 minutes
B. 30-60 minutes
C. 1-2 days
D. A week

8. You are treating a patient exhibiting signs of a myocardial infarction. The patient is hypotensive and bradycardic. What medication is most appropriate to administer initially?

A. Atropine
B. Dopamine
C. Adrenaline
D. Nitroglycerin

9. You respond to a call for a pulseless patient with bystander-initiated CPR underway. According to NREMT guidelines for managing cardiac arrest with an AED, which sequence should you follow?

A. Check the patient's responsiveness and assess breathing; then, check for a carotid pulse and don gloves.
B. Question bystanders about the events, instruct them to halt CPR, check for a pulse, and then apply the AED before starting compressions.
C. Power on the AED, ensure the airway is open, insert an adjunct if necessary, and proceed to analyze the rhythm.
D. Perform one full cycle of CPR, attach the AED as soon as available, and ensure everyone is clear before analyzing the heart rhythm.

10. You are performing CPR on a patient who suddenly becomes pulseless. You notice a dramatic drop in end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2). What could this change indicate?

A. The patient has achieved ROSC.
B. There is a possible airway obstruction.
C. The quality of chest compressions may be inadequate.
D. The patient is hyperventilating.

11. You respond to a call for a patient with a gunshot wound to the abdomen. Upon arrival, you find the patient conscious and bleeding profusely. What is your immediate priority?

A. Apply direct pressure to the wound.
B. Administer intravenous fluids.
C. Perform a primary survey (ABCs).
D. Prepare for immediate transport to the trauma center.

12. You are assessing a patient who fell from a height. The patient is unconscious but breathing and has multiple injuries, including possible fractures. What is your primary concern during initial management?

A. Assessing for signs of head injury.
B. Immobilizing the spine.
C. Assessing for internal bleeding.
D. Providing supplemental oxygen.

13. A patient has a deep laceration on his forearm with bright red, spurting blood. What type of bleeding is this, and how should you manage it?

A. Capillary bleeding, apply a bandage
B. Venous bleeding, apply a tourniquet
C. Arterial bleeding, apply direct pressure
D. Internal bleeding, provide oxygen

14. A patient has a flail chest following a motor vehicle collision. What is the most effective initial treatment?

A. Apply a bulky dressing.
B. Provide positive pressure ventilations.
C. Stabilize the chest with a bandage.
D. Administer high-flow oxygen and prepare for rapid transport.

15. You respond to a call where a construction worker has cut his arm with a circular saw. His coworker reports that he has lost about 400 mL of blood. As an AEMT, you know that a person can lose approximately _________ of blood before they are in significant danger of hypovolemic shock.

A. 200 mL
B. 450 mL
C. 800 mL
D. 1000 mL

16. What does the letter P represent in the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS?

A. Punctures
B. Pupillary size
C. Pneumothorax signs
D. Pulse rate

17. What blood pressure measurement indicates the heart's filling or relaxation phase?

A. Diastolic
B. Systolic
C. Peripheral
D. Central

18. During assessing a pregnant patient at 36 weeks gestation, you note that her blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. What condition should you be concerned about?

A. Gestational diabetes
B. Pre-eclampsia
C. Placental abruption
D. Uterine rupture

19. During a childbirth emergency, the mother suddenly experiences a prolapse of the umbilical cord. What immediate action should you take?

A. Place the mother in a knee-chest position.
B. Administer intravenous fluids to the mother.
C. Prepare for immediate transport to the hospital.
D. Attempt to deliver the baby quickly.

20. Where should you check for a pulse in an infant?

A. Radial artery
B. Carotid artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Femoral artery

21. You arrive on the scene to find a female patient experiencing contractions every 10-12 minutes. Upon visual inspection, there is no visible crowning. In which stage of labor is this patient?

A. 1st stage of labor
B. 2nd stage of labor
C. 3rd stage of labor
D. 4th stage of labor

22. Syncope in medical terms refers to:

A. Fainting
B. Coughing
C. Sneezing
D. Sweating

23. Which organization governs radio transmissions made during emergency calls?

A. NEMA
B. FDA
C. FCC
D. FEMA

24. What is the primary purpose of using repeaters in radio communication?

A. Record vital information for later use
B. Facilitate direct communication with patients
C. Extend the range of radio transmissions
D. Repeat incoming messages

25. What is the recommended communication style for radio messages in the EMS system?

A. Encoded to prevent unauthorized listeners from understanding
B. Short and concise, using simple affirmatives like "yes" and "no"
C. In complex medical terminology for accuracy
D. Clearly spoken in plain English